One mark Questions:
1. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete. Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAP Problem to Π, and shyam shows a polynomial time deduction from Π to 3-SAP which of the following can be inferred from these reduction ?
(a) Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete.
(b) Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete.
(c) Π is NP-complete.
(d) Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Ram shows 3-SAT ≤p Π
Shyam shows Π ≤p 3-SAT
Step-I: Now if p1 ≤p p2 and if p1 is np-complete, we can say that p2 is np-hard. Now Ram has shown 3-SAT ≤p Π and we know that 3-SAT is an np-complete problem. Therefore, we can conclude that Π np-hard.
Step-II: If p1 ≤p p2 and if p2 belongs to np than p1 also must belongs to np.
But shyam has shown that Π ≤p 3-SAT, and we know that 3-SAT is np-complete and hence it belongs to np.
So Π also must belongs to np.
In step-I we showed that Π is np-hard.
In step-II we showed that Π belongs to np.
So is Π np-complete.
1. Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete. Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAP Problem to Π, and shyam shows a polynomial time deduction from Π to 3-SAP which of the following can be inferred from these reduction ?
(a) Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete.
(b) Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete.
(c) Π is NP-complete.
(d) Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Ram shows 3-SAT ≤p Π
Shyam shows Π ≤p 3-SAT
Step-I: Now if p1 ≤p p2 and if p1 is np-complete, we can say that p2 is np-hard. Now Ram has shown 3-SAT ≤p Π and we know that 3-SAT is an np-complete problem. Therefore, we can conclude that Π np-hard.
Step-II: If p1 ≤p p2 and if p2 belongs to np than p1 also must belongs to np.
But shyam has shown that Π ≤p 3-SAT, and we know that 3-SAT is np-complete and hence it belongs to np.
So Π also must belongs to np.
In step-I we showed that Π is np-hard.
In step-II we showed that Π belongs to np.
So is Π np-complete.
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